ADRE SLRC 2022 Grade-III Paper-IV Previous Year Question Paper PDF

Looking for the ADRE 2022 Grade-III Paper-IV Previous Year Question Paper? This page provides the questions in an easy-to-read text format, along with the Question Paper PDF for reference. It also includes an independent exam analysis covering the major subject areas, question patterns, Assam and Northeast-focused topics, and key preparation takeaways for ADRE aspirants.

📌 Here on this page you will find:

• Exam Details
• 100 Previous Year Questions
• Independent Exam Analysis
• Preparation Takeaways
• Question Paper (PDF)
• Source, Attribution & Educational Use

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EXAM DETAILS

Details	Information
Examination	Assam Direct Recruitment Examination (ADRE)
Paper	Paper IV
Year	2022
Question Booklet Code	A
Total Questions	100
Total Marks	175
Marks per Question	1.75 Marks
Duration	2 Hours
Exam Time	2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
Question Type	Objective (MCQ)
Negative Marking	No Negative Marking
Medium	Assamese / Bengali / Bodo / Hindi / English
Conducting Body	State Level Recruitment Commission (SLRC), Assam

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QUESTIONS (1-100)

(The questions below have been reproduced from the ADRE 2022 Paper IV Question Booklet for educational and reference purposes. Candidates can also view the Question Paper PDF at the end of this page.)

1. The term "Tirthankaras" is associated with
   1. Jainism
   2. Buddhism
   3. Sikhism
   4. Hinduism
2. The State of Northeast India that does not share borders with Bangladesh, is
   1. Manipur
   2. Tripura
   3. Meghalaya
   4. Mizoram
3. Find the odd one out.
   1. Gangtok
   2. Imphal
   3. Agartala
   4. Dimapur
4. Which one of the following groups, is the festival "Lai Haraoba" associated with?
   1. Mishings
   2. Karbis
   3. Garos
   4. Meiteis
5. Where in Northeast India is Kangla fort located?
   1. Agartala
   2. Gangtok
   3. Itanagar
   4. Imphal
6. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
   1. Sundarbans delta is home to the largest mangrove forest in the world.
   2. China is world's largest mica producer.
   3. Easter Island is a land area that is antipodal to India.
   4. India's largest inland salt water lake is located in Gujarat.
8. Who amongst the following said, "Freedom is my birth right and I shall have it"?
   1. Chandra Sekhar Azad
   2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
   3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
   4. Bhagat Singh
9. The second battle of Panipat fought between Akbar and Hemu was in the year
   1. 1526
   2. 1536
   3. 1556
   4. 1576
10. When did the Election Commission of India first enforce the "None Of The Above (NOTA)" in the voting option in the assembly election in India?
    1. August, 2012
    2. November, 2013
    3. January, 2015
    4. October, 2014
11. Where is the Headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
    1. Paris
    2. The Hague
    3. Washington D.C.
    4. New York
12. Which one of the following steps did the Rowlatt Act incorporate?
    1. Forced to buy foreign goods
    2. Restriction on wearing Khadi
    3. Imprisonment without trial
    4. Restriction on travelling abroad
13. In which year did the Supreme Court of India appoint its first woman judge and whom did it appoint?
    1. 1985, R. Bhanumathi
    2. 1987, Indu Malhotra
    3. 1989, Fatima Beevi
    4. 1992, Indira Banerjee
14. The minimum age for acquiring voting right in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years, in the year
    1. 1986
    2. 1988
    3. 1990
    4. 1992
15. In which year did the British transfer the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi?
    1. 1911
    2. 1913
    3. 1907
    4. 1910
16. The Chief of the Ahom Military during the reign of Chuhungmung and the husband of Mula Gabhoru was
    1. Purnananda Buragohain
    2. Frashenmung Bor Gohain
    3. Khamsen Borgohain
    4. Konseng Borpatra Gohain
17. In which year the title 'Viceroy' was given to 'Governor General of India'?
    1. 1867
    2. 1858
    3. 1876
    4. 1905
18. Bodoland Territorial Council is a result of which of the following Constitutional provisions?
    1. Second Schedule
    2. Seventh Schedule
    3. Sixth Schedule
    4. Fifth Schedule
19. Pakyong airport is located in
    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Sikkim
    3. Manipur
    4. Mizoram
20. The most common animal figure found at all the Harappan sites is the
    1. Unihorn bull
    2. Cow
    3. Elephant
    4. Tiger
21. How many rings are there on the Olympics flag?
    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. 7
22. The capital city of Argentina is
    1. Buenos Aires
    2. Santiago
    3. Bogota
    4. Lima
23. Air Asia has its headquarters in
    1. Mumbai
    2. Kuala Lumpur
    3. Jakarta
    4. Bangkok
24. Which of the following is not an operating system for Computers?
    1. Windows 11
    2. Linux
    3. Microsoft Office
    4. Ubuntu
25. Which of the following is presently considered as the highest Himalayan peak of India?
    1. Kanchenjunga
    2. Nanda Devi
    3. Kamet
    4. Mana
26. Which mythical underground river is considered to have joined Ganga and Yamuna at Triveni Sangam of Prayagraj (formerly Prayag of Allahabad)?
    1. Bhagirathi
    2. Alakananda
    3. Saraswati
    4. Satadru
27. Which of the following is measured in Carats?
    1. Steel rod
    2. Milk fat
    3. Saffron
    4. Gold
28. Which branch of study deals with the history of life on Earth as based on fossils?
    1. Palaeontology
    2. Archaeology
    3. Geology
    4. Geomorphology
29. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
    1. Nanometer
    2. Barometer
    3. Altimeter
    4. Hydrometer
30. In a game of Kho Kho, how many members of chasing team enters the field and sit on their knees?
    1. Eight
    2. Ten
    3. Nine
    4. Seven
31. Which of the following is not native to India?
    1. Chimpanzee
    2. One Horned Rhino
    3. Pygmy Hog
    4. Leopard
32. Which is officially the National tree of India?
    1. Deodar
    2. Banyan
    3. Peepal
    4. Neem
33. Agnes Gonxha Bejaxhui has been more popularly known as
    1. Miraben
    2. Arundhati Roy
    3. Mother Teresa
    4. Sister Nivedita
34. Who invented the codes for Telegraph?
    1. Benjamin Franklin
    2. Samuel Morse
    3. Albert Einstein
    4. John Baird
35. What is the full form of NEFA - as Arunachal Pradesh was known earlier?
    1. North-East Frontier Area
    2. North-East Frontier Assembly
    3. North-East Frontier Activity
    4. North-East Frontier Agency
36. Which of the following festival is mainly celebrated in Kerala?
    1. Diwali
    2. Onam
    3. Pongal
    4. Lohri
37. The male lead role in which movie was played by Zubeen Garg?
    1. Mission China
    2. Mission Kashmir
    3. Mission Chennai
    4. Mission Kabul
38. Who wrote the book 'Malgudi Days'?
    1. R.K. Laxman
    2. K.R. Narayanan
    3. R.K. Narayan
    4. R.K. Pandit
39. Drones are
    1. Interstellar laser weapons
    2. Night vision binoculors
    3. Crawling land mine detectors
    4. Unmanned ariel vehicles
40. In the following list, who was a football player?
    1. Gilbertson Sangma
    2. Carfew Roy
    3. Tayebunnesa
    4. Mithu Baruah
41. Which of the following states does not share border with Assam?
    1. Nagaland
    2. Sikkim
    3. Mizoram
    4. West Bengal
42. Which district of Assam was created in January 2022?
    1. Bajali
    2. Baksa
    3. Tamulpur
    4. Hojai
43. Who presented the Budget for 2021-22 in Assam?
    1. Himanta Biswa Sarma
    2. Ajanta Neag
    3. Atul Bora
    4. Ranoj Pegu
44. Which of the following river is on the south bank of River Brahmaputra?
    1. Manas
    2. Subansiri
    3. Dikhow
    4. Ranganadi
45. Which one amongst the following is the oldest production unit?
    1. Digboi Refinery
    2. Numaligarh Refinery
    3. Bongaigaon Refinery
    4. Guwahati Refinery
46. Which amongst the following is a UNESCO Heritage site?
    1. Majuli River Island
    2. Sualkuchi
    3. Kamakhya Temple
    4. Manas National Park
47. Kaziranga National Park does not touch which of the following districts?
    1. Golaghat
    2. Karbi Anglong
    3. Nagaon
    4. Morigaon
48. Whose resting place is at Saraguri Chapori at Dikhowmukh, near Sibsagar?
    1. Bishnu Prasad Rabha
    2. Swargadeo Sukapha
    3. Ajan Pir
    4. Srimanta Sankardev
49. Who established the Gurudwara at Dhubri?
    1. Guru Nanak
    2. Guru Tegh Bahadur
    3. Guru Angad
    4. Guru Arjan
50. Who was the first female actress of Assamese Cinema?
    1. Aidew Handique
    2. Ebha Ashaw
    3. Abanti Handique
    4. Vidya Rao

1. Q is the only sister of A, who is the only son of B. B's wife is the daughter of P, who has only one son R. How is R related to Q?
   1. Father-in-law
   2. Uncle
   3. Son
   4. Father
2. In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from left and Prabin is 12th from right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
   1. 19
   2. 31
   3. 33
   4. 34
3. If \(72 \Box 96 = 6927\), \(58 \Box 87 = 7885\) then \(79 \Box 86 = ?\)
   1. 7689
   2. 8976
   3. 6897
   4. 6978
4. If \(-\) means 'addition', \(+\) means 'subtraction', \(\div\) means 'multiplication' and \(\times\) means 'division', then the value of \(18 \div 12 \times 4 - 5\) is:
   1. 25
   2. 35
   3. 40
   4. 33
5. The missing term in the sequence \(7, 11, 19, 31, \_\_, 67\) is
   1. 43
   2. 47
   3. 51
   4. 45
6. The Chairman enters the Assembly Hall 10 min before 12:30 hours to conduct the interview. The Chairman was 20 min earlier than the MD. The MD was 30 min late as per time fixed for the interview. The time fixed for the interview was:
   1. 12:50 hours
   2. 12:40 hours
   3. 12:00 hours
   4. 12:10 hours
7. The 8th term of the sequence \(2, 6, 18, 54, \dots\) is
   1. 4370
   2. 4374
   3. 7443
   4. 7434
8. Two numbers are respectively \(20\%\) and \(50\%\) more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is
   1. \(2:5\)
   2. \(3:5\)
   3. \(4:5\)
   4. \(7:5\)
9. The simple interest earned by ₹4,000 in 18 months at \(12\%\) per annum is
   1. 216
   2. 720
   3. 360
   4. 960
10. When a number is divided by \(893\) the remainder is \(193\). If the same number is divided by \(47\), the remainder will be:
    1. 3
    2. 25
    3. 5
    4. 33
11. A hostel has 120 students and food supplies are for 45 days. If 30 more students joined the hostel, then how many days the hostel will run with the existing food?
    1. 40 days
    2. 38 days
    3. 36 days
    4. 32 days
12. A \(20\,\text{m}\) long ladder is leaning on a vertical wall. It makes an angle of \(30^\circ\) with the ground. The height of the point the ladder touches wall is
    1. \(10\,\text{m}\)
    2. \(17.32\,\text{m}\)
    3. \(8.16\,\text{m}\)
    4. \(13\,\text{m}\)
13. A wheel can cover a distance of \(22\,\text{km}\) in 1000 rounds. The radius of the wheel is
    1. \(4.5\,\text{m}\)
    2. \(2.1\,\text{m}\)
    3. \(2.8\,\text{m}\)
    4. \(3.5\,\text{m}\)
14. In a school with 10 teachers, one retires and immediately a new teacher of age 25 years joins. As a result, the average age of the teacher reduces by 3. The age of the retired teacher is
    1. 55 years
    2. 65 years
    3. 58 years
    4. 60 years
15. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school of 720 students is \(7:5\). How many more girls should be admitted to make the ratio \(1:1\)?
    1. 60
    2. 120
    3. 180
    4. 240
16. Shyam stored ₹35 in the form of 1 rupee coin and 50 paise coins in the ratio \(2:3\). The number of 50 paise coins are:
    1. 20
    2. 25
    3. 30
    4. 35

17. The pie chart shows the expenditure breakup of a company for a given year. The angle subtended by the Tax segment is

    
    1. \(90^\circ\)
    2. \(45^\circ\)
    3. \(72^\circ\)
    4. \(81^\circ\)
18. 
    
    
19. What number should replace the question mark (?)? \[ \begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|} \hline & & & 14 & \\ \hline & 22 & & & \\ \hline & & & 34 & \\ \hline 41 & & & & \\ \hline & & 53 & & ? \\ \hline \end{array} \]
    1. 14
    2. 55
    3. 15
    4. 45

20. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes :

    BROTHER, HUSBAND, MEN

    

Questions 71-80: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

At last the bomb was made. The site chosen for the test explosion was the desert region north of Almogordo, two hundred miles from Los Alamos. The bomb was taken by road and placed on a gaunt tower, one hundred feet high and weighing thirty-two tons, erected on the top of a hill. The code name for it was Zero Hill. Zero hour was 5:30 a.m. on Monday, July 16, 1945.

Oppenheimer himself was at the control centre about nine miles from Zero Hill. There were a thousand spectators including scientists, government officials and a strong security force. All not on duty were told to lie down flat, face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head away from zero.

At forty-five seconds to zero hour Dr. Joseph L. Mckibban of California University set in motion a weird master robot which set other robots in motion. More than five hundred miles of wiring were used to start the bomb. Electronic impulses were set in motion and relayed messages; electrons moved into position. Observers stood with coloured film over their eyes and heads averted.

Overhead two B-29 super fortresses hovered, equipped with recording instruments to test reactions in the atmosphere. Ten seconds before zero hour a green flare warned the spectators to keep down. Then came the blinding flash.

The whole area was suddenly brighter than the brightest day light, and the bomb was a ball of fire. Even at nine miles, the heat was scorching. Then came the tremendous roar and the heavy pressure wave, which knocked down two men outside the control centre. And then came the cloud the mushroom cloud, all the colours of the rainbow, ironically beautiful surging upto over 40,000 feet, over 10,000 feet higher than Everest. The great steel tower had gone. Lead lined Sherman tanks took scientists towards the huge sloping crater where it had stood, to see the effects of radiation on the surface of the earth.

71. Zero Hill was located in
    1. Desert region of Almogordo
    2. Desert region of Los Alamos
    3. Desert region north of Almogordo
    4. Desert region south of Almogordo
72. Hover means
    1. To remain in the air at one place
    2. To move to and fro
    3. To circle around
    4. To move up and down
73. The bomb exploded
    1. emitting heat, sound and heavy pressure wave
    2. emitting cloud and cloudburst
    3. without creating much physical disturbances
    4. creating a lot of physical and mental disturbances
74. Electronic impulses
    1. were not effective
    2. relayed messages
    3. warned the spectators
    4. greeted the spectators
75. The spectators included
    1. scientists, government officials and a strong security force.
    2. scientists, artists and a strong security force.
    3. scientists, a strong security force and footballers.
    4. scientists, technicians and a strong security force.
76. Who was at the control tower?
    1. Oppenheimer
    2. McKibbon
    3. both Oppenheimer and McKibbon
    4. Government officials
77. It is implied in the passage that the spectators were told to
    1. lie down flat, face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head away from zero.
    2. cover their eyes with coloured films and keep their head averted.
    3. lie down flat, face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head towards zero.
    4. cover their heads with coloured films and eyes closed.
78. B-29 superfortresses and Sherman tanks are used to
    1. check the effect of the bomb on the ground and air respectively.
    2. check effect of radiation on the ground and air respectively.
    3. check effect of radiation in the air and ground respectively.
    4. check the effect of the bomb on the great steel tower.
79. The beauty of the mushroom cloud is ironical because
    1. It knocked down two men outside the control centre.
    2. Of the devastating nature of the bomb.
    3. The bomb destroyed the steel tower.
    4. Clouds are not devastating.
80. A synonym and antonym for the word Scorching would be
    1. Searing, Soothing
    2. Searing, Burning
    3. Soothing, Cooling
    4. Soothing, Heating

81. The value of \(\sqrt{20 \times 45} + \sqrt{0.04} + \sqrt{0.64}\) is
    1. 26
    2. 31
    3. 36
    4. 41
82. If \(\frac{x}{y}=\frac{2}{3}\), then the value of \(\frac{3x+5y}{3x-5y}+\frac{6x+4y}{6x-y}\) is equal to
    1. \(\frac{1}{3}\)
    2. \(\frac{2}{3}\)
    3. \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
    4. \(-\frac{2}{3}\)
83. The value of \(\frac{0.1 \times 0.1 \times 0.1 + 0.02 \times 0.02 \times 0.02}{0.2 \times 0.2 \times 0.2 + 0.04 \times 0.04 \times 0.04}\) is
    1. \(\frac{1}{8}\)
    2. \(\frac{1}{2}\)
    3. \(\frac{1}{16}\)
    4. \(\frac{1}{4}\)
84. If \(2^{2n-1}-2^{2n-3}-1=0\), then the value of \(n\) is
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
85. If \(4^{x}+4^{1-x}=4\), then the values of \(x\) are
    1. \(\frac{1}{2}\) only
    2. \(-\frac{1}{2}\) only
    3. \(\pm\frac{1}{2}\)
    4. 0, 1
86. If \(a+b+c=0\), then the value of \(\frac{a^{2}}{bc}+\frac{b^{2}}{ca}+\frac{c^{2}}{ab}\) is
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 3
    4. -3
87. If \(\log_{10}2=0.3010\) and \(\log_{10}3=0.4771\), then the value of \(\log_{10}4.5\) is
    1. 0.6532
    2. 0.6432
    3. 0.6234
    4. 0.6352
88. If \(x+y=10\) and \(xy=16\), then the value of \(x^{3}+y^{3}\) is
    1. 280
    2. 300
    3. 320
    4. 340
89. If \(p+q=1\), then the value of \(p^{3}+q^{3}+3pq\) is
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
90. In \(\triangle ABC\), \(AD\) is the bisector of \(\angle A\). If \(AB=5\) cm, \(AC=7\) cm and \(BD=2.5\) cm, then the length of \(DC\) is
    1. 3.5 cm
    2. 3 cm
    3. 4 cm
    4. 4.5 cm
91. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio \(2:3\) and their heights are in the ratio \(5:3\). The ratio of their volumes is
    1. \(27:20\)
    2. \(20:27\)
    3. \(9:4\)
    4. \(4:9\)
92. If the area of a circle is numerically equal to its circumference, then its radius is
    1. 1 unit
    2. 2 units
    3. 3 units
    4. 4 units
93. A rectangular sheet of metal of size \(40\text{ cm} \times 22\text{ cm}\) is rolled to form a cylinder of height \(40\text{ cm}\). The radius of the cylinder is
    1. 3.5 cm
    2. 7 cm
    3. 14 cm
    4. 21 cm
94. If the mean of five observations \(x, x+2, x+4, x+6\) and \(x+8\) is \(11\), then the mean of the first three observations is
    1. 9
    2. 11
    3. 13
    4. 15
95. The median of the data \(15, 6, 18, 10, 12, 21, 4, 13\) is
    1. 12.5
    2. 13
    3. 13.5
    4. 14
96. The mode of the distribution \(3, 5, 7, 4, 2, 1, 4, 6, 4, 3\) is
    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 7
97. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. The probability of getting a red face card is
    1. \(\frac{3}{13}\)
    2. \(\frac{3}{26}\)
    3. \(\frac{1}{26}\)
    4. \(\frac{2}{13}\)
98. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a sum of 8 is
    1. \(\frac{5}{36}\)
    2. \(\frac{1}{6}\)
    3. \(\frac{7}{36}\)
    4. \(\frac{1}{9}\)
99. If \(\sin\theta+\cos\theta=\sqrt{2}\cos\theta\), then the value of \(\tan\theta\) is
    1. \(\sqrt{2}-1\)
    2. \(\sqrt{2}+1\)
    3. \(\sqrt{3}\)
    4. \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
100. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is \(30\) m away from the foot of the tower, is \(30^\circ\). The height of the tower is
     1. \(10\sqrt{3}\) m
     2. \(30\sqrt{3}\) m
     3. \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}\) m
     4. \(15\sqrt{3}\) m

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ADRE Grade-III Paper-IV (2022): Exam Analysis

The ADRE Grade-III Paper-IV (2022) provides useful insight into the type and range of questions asked in the Assam Direct Recruitment Examination. The observations below are based on an independent review of the paper and are intended to help aspirants understand its broader pattern rather than simply memorise individual questions.

1. Broad Areas Covered

The paper tests candidates across several areas, including:

• General Awareness: Questions cover Indian history, geography, polity, important personalities, international organisations, sports, culture and other areas of general knowledge.
• Assam & Northeast India: A noticeable regional component appears throughout the paper. Topics include Assam history, geography, personalities, institutions, districts, cultural heritage and the wider Northeast.
• Reasoning & Mental Ability: Candidates are tested through questions involving relationships, number patterns, sequences, logical interpretation and other reasoning-based problems.
• English Language & Comprehension: The paper includes reading-comprehension and language-based questions that test vocabulary, interpretation and the ability to understand information from a given passage.
• Quantitative Aptitude & Mathematics: Arithmetic, algebra, geometry, mensuration, statistics, probability and trigonometry are represented in the paper, showing the importance of mathematical preparation for Paper-IV.

2. Nature of the Questions

A significant portion of the General Awareness questions is fact-oriented. Candidates are expected to know information such as historical events, constitutional provisions, geographical locations, institutions, personalities and important facts relating to Assam and India.

At the same time, the reasoning and mathematics portions require candidates to apply concepts rather than depend entirely on memorisation.

The paper therefore rewards both broad factual knowledge and basic problem-solving ability.

3. Importance of Assam & Northeast Topics

One of the useful observations from the 2022 paper is the presence of several questions connected directly with Assam and Northeast India.

Topics appearing in the paper include Assam's history, districts, rivers, refineries, cultural personalities, protected areas and institutions, along with questions concerning other Northeastern states.

For preparation, aspirants should therefore study Assam-specific topics alongside national-level General Knowledge rather than treating regional topics as a minor supplementary area.

4. What Aspirants Can Learn from This Paper

Based on an analysis of the 2022 Paper-IV, aspirants can draw several practical lessons:

• Build a strong foundation in Assam history, geography and culture.
• Revise important static General Knowledge regularly.
• Practise arithmetic and mathematics instead of relying only on General Knowledge.
• Include reasoning and mental-ability questions in regular practice.
• Practise reading comprehension and vocabulary.
• Use previous-year papers to identify recurring areas and understand question styles.

5. How to Use This PYQ Effectively

Instead of only reading the questions, try solving the complete paper under timed conditions first.

After completing it, classify the questions into subjects such as Assam, History, Geography, Polity, Science, Reasoning, English and Mathematics. Identify the areas where you made the most mistakes and revise those topics separately.

This approach turns a previous-year paper from a simple collection of questions into a useful tool for identifying strengths, weaknesses and important areas for revision.

Note: This analysis has been independently prepared by ijinsights based on a review of the ADRE 2022 Paper-IV. The pattern and distribution observed in this particular paper should not be treated as a guarantee of the structure, syllabus, difficulty level or marking scheme of future ADRE examinations.

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Question Paper (PDF)

If you prefer reading the original question paper or want to verify the formatting, you can view the ADRE 2022 Paper-IV Question Paper below.

The PDF is provided as a reference copy so that candidates can compare the questions presented on this page with the original examination-paper format, instructions and booklet layout.

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Source, Attribution & Educational Use

The questions reproduced on this page are based on the ADRE 2022 Grade-III Paper-IV examination material and are provided for educational, research, reference and examination-preparation purposes.

The examination questions and original question-paper material are not claimed as original creations of ijinsights. The exam analysis, categorisation, explanatory notes, page presentation and other editorial content published alongside the paper have been independently prepared by ijinsights.

ijinsights is an independent educational website and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or officially associated with the State Level Recruitment Commission (SLRC), the Government of Assam, or any other examination authority.

Candidates should always refer to the relevant official Government of Assam recruitment portals and official notifications for authoritative information regarding examinations, eligibility, syllabus, answer keys, results and recruitment updates.

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