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Download APSC CCE Prelims 2025 GS-I Previous Year Question Paper PDF with Official Answer Key

Looking for the official APSC CCE Prelims 2025 General Studies (GS-I) Previous Year Question Paper? This page contains all 100 questions in text format for easy reading, along with the official Question Paper PDF and the official Provisional Answer Key PDF released by the Assam Public Service Commission (APSC).

📌 Here on this page you will find:

  • Exam Details
  • 100 Questions
  • Official Question Paper (PDF)
  • Official Provisional Answer Key (PDF)
  • Source & Attribution

EXAM DETAILS

Details Information
Paper General Studies Paper-I
Year 2025
Exam Stage Preliminary Examination
Total Questions 100
Total Marks 200
Duration 2 Hours
Question Type Objective (MCQ)
Negative Marking Yes (0.25 mark deducted for each incorrect answer)
Medium English & Assamese
Booklet Series A

QUESTIONS (1-100)

(The questions below have been reproduced from the official APSC CCE Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper-I for educational and reference purposes. Candidates can also view the official Question Paper PDF and the official Provisional Answer Key at the end of this page.)

  1. Assamese language is recognized as a Classical Language in 2024. In this respect, consider the following statements:

    1. The recognition came from the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), Mysuru.
    2. The recognition enables the establishment of a Central University for Assamese Language.
    3. The recognition facilitates the establishment of an Advanced Centre for Classical Assamese Language.
    4. As a result of the recognition, Assam Sahitya Sabha will receive financial grants directly from the Government of India.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1 and 4

  2. Match the monuments mentioned in the left with their places in the right:

    Monuments Places
    a. Rock-cut temple
    b. Bhubaneswari temple
    c. Mahabhairab temple
    d. Ghanashyam temple     		1. Joysagar
    2. Tezpur
    3. Maibong
    4. Guwahati

    Select the correct match using the codes given below:

    1. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    2. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    3. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
    4. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

  3. Which distinction did Mayank Chakraborty achieve in 2026 for the first time for Assam and North-East India?

    1. Chess Grandmaster
    2. All England Open Badminton Champion
    3. Wimbledon Junior Boys' Champion in Tennis
    4. Played for India in Under 19 T20 World Cup

  4. The monumental work compiled and edited by Sir G. A. Grierson and published in 1904 is popularly known as LSI. What is the full form of LSI?

    1. Languages Survey of India
    2. Linguistic Survey of India
    3. Lingual Survey of India
    4. Languages and Speeches of India

  5. Consider the names of former Chief Minister of Assam:

    1. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury
    2. Jogendra Nath Hazarika
    3. Kesab Chandra Gogoi
    4. Anwara Taimur

    Who among them were once the Speaker of Legislative Assembly of Assam too? Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 2 and 3 only

  6. Which of the following civilian honours was/were awarded to Dr. Bhupen Hazarika during his lifetime?

    1. Padma Shri
    2. Padma Bhushan
    3. Padma Vibhushan
    4. Bharat Ratna

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 1 only
    4. 3 and 4

  7. Match the names of the books in List–I with the authors in List-II :

    List-I List-II
    a. A Comprehensive History of Assam
    b. The Comprehensive History of Assam
    c. Assam in the Days of the Company
    d. The Tai and the Tai Kingdoms     		1. Dr. Surya Kumar Bhuyan
    2. Padmeswar Gogoi
    3. Swarnalata Baruah
    4. Heramba Kanta Borpujari

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    2. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    3. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
    4. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

  8. With regard to the Strait of Hormuz, consider the following statements:

    1. Both USA and Iran share the ownership of the Strait of Hormuz.
    2. Both Iran and Oman have geographical control over the Strait of Hormuz due to their proximity to the Strait.
    3. The USA, Israel, Iran War (2026) is being fought for the control of the Strait of Hormuz.
    4. It is a waterway between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

    Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 2 and 4
    4. 3 only

  9. Match the dance forms mentioned in List-I with the ethnic communities mentioned in List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Farkanti Dance
    b. Bahuwa Dance
    c. Wangala Dance
    d. Langkhun Dance     		1. Garo
    2. Tiwa
    3. Rabha
    4. Sonowal Kachari

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
    2. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
    3. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
    4. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

  10. Match the Samhati of the Neo-Vaishnavism of Assam given in List–I with the name of the Sattra belonging to the particular Samhati from List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Brahma Samhati
    b. Purush Samhati
    c. Nika Samhati
    d. Kaal Samhati     		1. Narowa Sattra
    2. Kamalabari Sattra
    3. Auniati Sattra
    4. Mayamara Sattra

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    2. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    3. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
    4. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

  11. Match the movements in List-I with the personality or organization spearheading them in List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Chipko Movement
    b. Narmada Bachao Andolan
    c. Appiko Movement
    d. Jungle Bachao Andolan     		1. Tribes of Singhbhum
    2. Panduranga Hegde
    3. Sunderlal Bahuguna
    4. Medha Patkar and Baba Amte

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
    2. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    3. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    4. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

  12. Match the Indian Classic mentioned in List–I with its author from List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Gora
    b. The Guide
    c. Devdas
    d. Godan     		1. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
    2. Munshi Premchand
    3. R. K. Narayan
    4. Rabindranath Tagore

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
    2. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
    3. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    4. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

  13. Following are some of the tributaries of the Brahmaputra. Classify them into two groups-(i) which are on the North Bank and (ii) which are on the South Bank of the Brahmaputra.

    1. Kolong
    2. Bargang
    3. Aie
    4. Krishnai
    5. Belsiri
    6. Manah
    7. Disang
    8. Dikrong
    9. Jhanji
    10. Kakodonga

    Select the correct clusters given below.

    On the North Bank On the South Bank
    A.
    B.
    C.
    D.     		1, 3, 5, 8, 9
    3, 5, 7, 9, 10
    3, 4, 9, 1, 2
    2, 3, 5, 6, 8     		2, 4, 6, 7, 10
    1, 2, 4, 6, 8
    5, 6, 7, 8, 10
    1, 4, 7, 9, 10

  14. Consider the following statements:

    1. The United Nations Security Council reflects contemporary geopolitical realities.
    2. The G20 includes countries representing a major share of global GDP and population.
    3. IMF provides long-term development financing to low-income countries.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  15. During the 17th BRICS Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 2025, Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, made certain suggestions as listed below:

    1. Making the supply chain of critical minerals secure and resilient
    2. Promoting responsible use of AI
    3. Establishing a unified BRICS military force for regional security
    4. Setting up a science and research repository

    Select the correct suggestions using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1, 3 and 4
    3. 1, 2 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4

  16. Consider the following:

    1. India imports more than 85% of crude oil.
    2. Russia is the single largest supplier of crude oil to India.
    3. India's strategic petroleum reserves can cover about 9 days emergency requirement of the country.
    4. The oil marketing companies also separately maintain a reserve of about 2 months requirement of the country.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  17. 'Direct Air Capture' is an emerging technology. Which of the following is true about Direct Air Capture'?

    1. It is a technology used to segregate carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere for storage or other use
    2. This technology enables us to capture CO₂ from atmosphere and release it into the ocean
    3. This technology enables to chemically break down CO₂ from captured air into carbon and oxygen
    4. None of the above

  18. Which of the following statements about 'Green Climate Fund' is not true?

    1. It is the largest climate finance in the world.
    2. India receives funding for projects under 'Green Climate Fund'.
    3. This fund was established within the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
    4. The headquarters of 'Green Climate Fund' is in Geneva, Switzerland.

  19. Consider the following statements about quantum computer (quantum computing) :

    1. It is a rapidly advancing field that uses quantum mechanics to process information using 'qubits' instead of binary bits.
    2. Many computer giants in the world are competing to produce working models of quantum computers.
    3. 'Majorana 1' by Microsoft is the world's first quantum processor powered by topological qubits.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None of the above

  20. Which of the following statements about ongoing FIFA World Cup, 2026 (soccer) is/are true?:

    1. A total of 32 teams are taking part in the tournament.
    2. USA, Canada and Mexico are jointly hosting the tournament.
    3. It is the first time 3 nations are taking part in the FIFA World Cup.

    Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  21. The Begram Ivories' can be dated between

    1. 1st century CE or 2nd century CE
    2. 3rd century CE to 5th century CE
    3. 3rd century BCE to 1st century BCE
    4. 6th century CE to 7th century CE

  22. The rock-cut caves in Udayagiri and Khandagiri Hills in Odisha belong to which of the following?

    1. Mahayana Buddhism
    2. Hinayana Buddhism
    3. Jainism
    4. Ajivikas

  23. The Banskhera inscription is associated with which of the following kings?

    1. Ashoka
    2. Kanishka
    3. Harshavardhana
    4. Dharmapala

  24. The ancient river Saraswati mentioned in the Rigveda is identified with which of the following rivers?

    1. Ganga
    2. Yamuna
    3. Sutlej
    4. Ghaggar-Hakra

  25. Which of the following inscriptions of early Assam was issued by Bhaskaravarman?

    1. Doobi copper plates
    2. Nagajari stone inscriptions
    3. Tezpur copper plates
    4. Bargaon copper plates

  26. With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following pairs of ancient sites and their notable archaeological findings:

    List-I List-II
    a. Lothal
    b. Kalibangan
    c. Dholavira
    d. Banawali     		1. Evidence of a ploughed field
    2. Remains of a large dockyard
    3. A terracotta replica of a plough
    4. Ten large-sized signs of the script

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    2. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    3. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
    4. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

  27. With reference to the contribution of Semsonsing Ingti, consider the following statements :

    1. He played a crucial role as a co-opted member in the Bordoloi Sub-Committee for the inclusion of the Karbis under the Sixth Schedule.
    2. He encouraged the scattered Karbi groups to settle in the Mikir Hills to acquire government facilities.
    3. He advocated for the complete separation of Karbi Anglong from the State of Assam to form an independent Karbi State.
    4. He is also known as the Father of Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  28. King Rudra Singha wanted to conquer Bengal and extend his territory because

    1. he wanted to form a Hindu confederacy
    2. he wanted to be the all-powerful supreme ruler in India
    3. he wanted to include a part of the River Ganga in his kingdom
    4. he wanted to take revenge upon the Mughals

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 4

  29. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):

    Assertion (A) :
    Ralph Fitch visited Koch Bihar in 1585 and met benevolent King Naranarayan as a benevolent monarch.

    Reason (R):
    Because according to him, Naranarayan established hospitals even for animals and birds and they did not kill any living creatures.

    Which of the following options is correct?

    1. Both the statements are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. Both the statements are false
    3. (A) is true but (R) is false
    4. (R) is true but (A) is false

  30. Match the following names in List–I with the Ahom rulers in List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Supatpha
    b. Sukhrungpha
    c. Sutanpha
    d. Suhitpongpha     		1. Rudra Singha
    2. Gadadhar Singha
    3. Gaurinath Singha
    4. Siva Singha

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    2. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    3. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
    4. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

  31. Which of the following statements about the play, Nil Darpan are true?

    1. It was written in 1860.
    2. Its author is Munshi Premchand.
    3. Its author is Dinabandhu Mitra.
    4. It portrayed the oppression of Bengal peasants by the European indigo planters.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 4
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 3 and 4

  32. Who was the first propounder of the doctrine of 'passive resistance'?

    1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    2. Aurobindo Ghosh
    3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    4. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

  33. Mahavira was considered to be the ____ Tirthankara.

    1. 21st
    2. 22nd
    3. 23rd
    4. 24th

  34. Match the following names in List–I with the Ahom rulers in List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Hema Saraswati
    b. Bakul Kayastha
    c. Kaviraj Chakraborty
    d. Dutiram Hazarika     		1. Kali Bharat Buranji
    2. Prahlada Charita
    3. Kitabat Manjari
    4. Sankhachuda Vadha

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
    2. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    3. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
    4. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

  35. The French traveller, Jean-Baptiste Chevalier visited ancient Assam during the reign of which Ahom ruler in mid-18th century? He visited the Ahom capital to establish trade.

    1. Rajeswar Singha
    2. Rudra Singha
    3. Pratap Singha
    4. Jayadhwaj Singha

  36. Arrange the following rock systems of India in chronological order of formation :

    1. Dharwar Rock System
    2. Vindhyan Rock System
    3. Archaean Rock System
    4. Gondwana Rock System

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
    2. 3 → 2 → 1 → 4
    3. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
    4. 3 → 1 → 2 → 4

  37. Consider the following pairs:

    1. Alluvial Soil : Brahmaputra and Barak Valleys
    2. Red Soil : Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills
    3. Laterite Soil : Meghalaya Plateau fringe areas
    4. Sandy Soil : River Islands (Chars) and riverbeds

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  38. Which of the following pairs regarding the festivals of North-East India are incorrectly matched?

    1. Moatsu Festival : Nagaland
    2. Bwisagu Festival : Meghalaya
    3. Sangai Festival : Manipur
    4. Thabal Chongba : Mizoramz

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 and 4

  39. Which of the following statements about the languages of India are correct?

    1. India has 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule.
    2. Tamil is the oldest surviving classical language in India.
    3. Hindi is the mother tongue for over 50% of India's population.
    4. Sanskrit is recognized as a classical language but is spoken as a mother tongue by less than 0·1% of the population.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 4 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  40. Arrange the following tribes of Assam in descending order of population (2011 census):

    1. Mishing
    2. Rabha
    3. Bodo
    4. Karbi

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 2 → 3 → 4 → 1
    2. 3 → 1 → 4 → 2
    3. 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
    4. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4

  41. Which of the following statements concerning location of countries in relation to the equator is/are not correct?

    1. The equator passes through Gabon, Congo, Uganda and Kenya.
    2. Malaysia, Singapore, Philippines and Brunei are located on the north of equator.
    3. The equator passes through Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela and Guyana.
    4. The equator does not pass through Maldives and Indonesia.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 3 and 4

  42. Which of the following rivers that flow into Assam and originate from Bhutan?

    1. Barak, Feni, Aie, Kulsi
    2. Beki, Raidak, Sankosh, Manas
    3. Kapili, Digaru, Jinjiram, Kulsi
    4. Dawki, Tuivai, Irang, Feni

  43. Consider the following statements :

    1. Marat Longri Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Dima Hasao district of Assam.
    2. Dehing Patkai National Park is known as the Amazon of the East.
    3. Sikhna Jwhwlao National Park is the 8th National Park of Assam.
    4. Manas is the only biosphere reserve of Assam.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 2, 3 and 4

  44. Match the following dress forms (in List-II) with their corresponding communities of Assam (in List-I) :

    List-I (Community) List-II (Dress form)
    a. Karbi
    b. Dimasa
    c. Bodo
    d. Rabha     		1. Kambang
    2. Pokok
    3. Dokhona
    4. Rijamphain

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
    2. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
    3. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    4. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4

  45. Match the following wildlife sanctuaries (in List-I) with their corresponding features (in List-II):

    List-I List-II
    a. Pobitora
    b. Hollongapar
    c. Deepor Beel
    d. Chakrashila     		1. Golden langur
    2. High rhino density
    3. Ramsar Site
    4. Gibbon habitat

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
    2. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
    3. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
    4. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

  46. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

    Island/Volcano Country
    a. Hawaii
    b. Mount Fuji
    c. Barren Island
    d. Mayon     		1. USA
    2. Philippines
    3. India
    4. Indonesia

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 4
    4. 2 and 3

  47. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Strait of Hormuz is a waterway connecting the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.
    2. The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean (via the Caribbean Sea) to the Pacific Ocean.
    3. The Karakum Canal is a major irrigation and water supply canal located in Iran.
    4. The Indira Gandhi Canal originates from the Harike Barrage in Punjab and flows through Rajasthan supplying water to the Thar Desert.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  48. Consider the following statements:

    1. The monsoon winds always blow from land to sea during summer.
    2. The Bay of Bengal branch brings ranifall to North-East India.
    3. El Niño leads to weaker monsoon rainfall in India.
    4. Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall during the North-East monsoon.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 2, 3 and 4 only

  49. With reference to the forest cover of India, consider the following statements:

    1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in terms of area.
    2. Mizoram has more than 80% forest cover.
    3. India State of Forest Report (ISFR), 2023 reports that India's total forest cover is about 21·76% of the country's total geographical area.
    4. India's forest cover is unevenly distributed across States.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 2, 3 and 4 only

  50. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

    Ocean Current Ocean Name
    1. Gulf Stream
    2. Kuroshio
    3. Benguela
    4. Peru     		Atlantic Ocean
    Pacific Ocean
    Indian Ocean
    Southern Ocean

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  51. The Chief Minister's Green Fellowship was launched in Assam in 2024–25. What are some of the objectives of the programme?

    1. Creating skilled and environmentally conscious youth
    2. Providing internship on 'Environmental Sustainability and Innovative Solution' for select youth in a reputed foreign institution/university
    3. Facilitating legislative policy training for select youth
    4. Enabling entry of youths from marginalized communities into environmental policy making

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  52. Which of the following statements are correct about the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026?

    1. The Bill has made some changes in the definition of a transgender person.
    2. The Bill makes the recommendation of a designated medical board mandatory for the District Magistrate to issue a certificate of identity to a transgender person.
    3. The Bill provides for reservation of transgender person into educational institutions.
    4. The Bill expands the ambit of offences against transgender persons and increases the quantum of punishment too.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  53. Identify the false statements about the provision of lateral entry into the Civil Services in India:

    1. Individuals with domain expertise and a proven track record in relevant fields from the private sector, autonomous bodies, or public sector undertakings are eligible to apply for these positions.
    2. Lateral entry must follow the existing norms and criteria of reservation policies being practised.
    3. These lateral entrants are appointed on contract for 3 years, which can be extended to a maximum of 5 years.
    4. Women are given special emphasis under the system of lateral entries.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 4

  54. Which of the following statements is correct about NITI Aayog?

    1. One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to foster cooperative federalism.
    2. NITI Aayog looks after the allocation of resources to the States, specially from the point of view of infrastructural needs.
    3. Atal Innovative Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative launched by NITI Aayog.
    4. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises full-time members of NITI Aayog and special invitees also.

  55. Match the following schemes (in List-I) with the key focus areas (in List-II) :

    List-I List-II
    a. Guru Dakshina Scheme
    b. Mukhyamantri Jibon Prerana Scheme
    c. Governor Assam's Pratibha Protsahan Yojana
    d. Ornnodoi Scheme     		1. Poverty alleviation
    2. Financial assistance to non-provincial teachers
    3. Graduate students
    4. Civil Service aspirants

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    2. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    3. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
    4. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

  56. Which of the following facts about the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) of India are not true?

    1. The original plan comprised of nine key missions.
    2. National Rainwater Harvesting Mission is one of the initiatives under NAPCC.
    3. Sustaining the Himalayan ecosystem is one of the core missions under the plan.
    4. NAPCC goals are in alignment with the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 2 and 4

  57. Consider the following statements about the institutional mechanisms under India's Act East Policy :

    1. East Asia Summit (EAS) serves as the premier forum for strategic dialogue in the Asia-Pacific region.
    2. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP) involves sea, river, and road routes aiming to boost trade and improve logistical access to India's North-East.
    3. Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) extends India's reach to the Pacific Island nations.
    4. Mekong-Ganga Cooperation connects India with islands of South-East Asian countries.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  58. Place the following events in the ascending order from the time of their commencement:

    1. Operation Meghdoot
    2. Operation Vijay
    3. Operation Smiling Buddha
    4. Galwan Valley Standoff

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 2 → 3 → 1 → 4
    2. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
    3. 2 → 3 → 4 → 1
    4. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4

  59. Which of the following statements regarding the rules and provisions of the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994 are correct?

    1. The Act establishes a three-tier system.
    2. The Act provides reservation of seats and offices for the President/Vice President of Zila Parishad and Anchalik Panchayat for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women.
    3. The Act outlines specific, mandatory revenue sharing from Haat (market) sales.
    4. The latest amendment to the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994 has taken place in the form of the Assam Panchayat (Amendment) Act, 2025.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  60. Match List-I with List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Justice Soumitra Saikia Commission
    b. Justice Anima Hazarika Commission
    c. Justice K. N. Saikia Commission
    d. Hari Shankar Brahma Committee     		1. Coal mining tragedy in Dima Hasao district
    2. Death of Zubeen Garg
    3. Protection of land rights of indigenous people
    4. Extra-judicial investigation

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    2. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    3. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
    4. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

  61. In the 2025–26 Budget, the Indian Government sought to promote AVGC-animation, visual effects, gaming and comics, as part of the country's

    1. skill industry
    2. orange economy
    3. gig economy
    4. new skill economy

  62. The President of India summons, prorogues and dissolves the legislature. What does prorogue mean?

    1. To terminate a sitting
    2. To terminate the session
    3. To adjourn the sitting sine die
    4. None of the above

  63. According to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, as amended by the Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment) Act, 2003, a merger between political parties shall be exempted from disqualification on the ground of defection only if

    1. at least ⅓rd of the members of the legislative party opts to form a new fraction
    2. a simple majority of the members of the legislative party approves the merger
    3. not less than ⅔rds of the members of the legislative party agree to such a merger
    4. the merger is ratified by a unanimous vote of the legislative party

  64. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements and identify the incorrect answer from the options given below.

    1. The Supreme Court of India was established under Article 124 of the Constitution of India.
    2. It came into existence on 26th January, 1950 with the commencement of the Constitution.
    3. The original Constitution provided for one Chief Justice and seven puisne judges.
    4. The proceedings of the Supreme Court are conducted only in Hindi.

  65. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India's proceedings on February 03, 2026 involving Meta platforms and WhatsApp:

    Assertion (A) :
    The Court issued a stern warning to Meta platforms, characterising their data sharing practices under the 2021 Privacy Policy as a 'decent way of committing theft of private information'.

    Reason (R):
    The Court held that the 'take-it-or-leave-it' approach to user agreements ensures that digital consent is efficiently gathered through an implicit and assumed acceptance of terms.

    Which of the following options is correct?

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    3. (A) is true but (R) is false
    4. (A) is false but (R) is true

  66. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, besides the High Court and Courts constituted under other laws, which of the following is not classified as one of the Criminal Courts in the States?

    1. Courts of Session
    2. Judicial Magistrates of the First Class
    3. Lok Adalats
    4. Executive Magistrates

  67. A land customs station is a designated place on an international land border where customs and immigration formalities for movement of goods and people are carried out. North-East India shares boundaries with Bhutan, China, Myanmar and Bangladesh, and has a number of such land customs stations. Indicate the correct matching from the Lists given below:

    List-I
    (Name of Land
    Customs Station)    		 List-II
    (State where
    located)
    1. Hatisar
    2. Sutarkandi
    3. Moreh
    4. Borsora     		Assam
    Assam
    Nagaland
    Manipur

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  68. The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are

    1. pre-agricultural level of technology
    2. low level of literacy
    3. economic backwardness
    4. a declining or stagnant population

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  69. The Indian Constitution includes special provisions under Part XXI, Articles 371A to 371H to safeguard the unique cultural, social and customary practices of certain North-Eastern States. Match the Articles in List-I which apply to specific North-Eastern States in List-II:

    List-I List-II
    a. Article 371А
    b. Article 371B
    c. Article 371C
    d. Article 371G     		1. Assam
    2. Manipur
    3. Mizoram
    4. Nagaland

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    2. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
    3. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
    4. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

  70. Match the schemes pertaining to Assam in List-I with their provisions in List-II :

    List-I List-II
    a. Orunodoi Scheme 1. A pension scheme for senior citizens covering all eligible individuals in the State
    b. Assam Arogya Nidhi (AAN) Scheme 2. A flagship scheme under the Assam State Rural Livelihoods Mission aiming to generate sustainable livelihood for women in rural areas by forming Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
    c. Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni 3. A major poverty alleviation programme that provides monthly financial assistance to poor households through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
    d. Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana 4. Provides financial assistance for the treatment of serious diseases and injuries, including those caused by natural or man-made disasters for families with an annual income of less than ₹5 lakh

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    2. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
    3. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
    4. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

  71. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council comprises which of the following members?

    1. The Prime Minister of India, Union Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance, Finance Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislatures
    2. Union Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance, Finance Ministers of all States and Union Territories with legislatures
    3. Union Finance Minister, Economic Advisor to the Prime Minister of India, Union Home Minister, Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories
    4. Union Finance Minister and Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories

  72. Which of the following Ramsar Sites are located in North-East India?

    1. Tampara Lake
    2. Pala Wetland
    3. Ansupa Lake
    4. Rudrasagar Lake

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  73. The concept of sustainable development was popularized by

    1. the Brundtland Commission
    2. the World Trade Organization
    3. the Club of Rome
    4. the UN Environment Programme

  74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. Tampara Lake
    2. Pala Wetland
    3. Ansupa Lake
    4. Rudrasagar Lake

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  75. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

    1. Basic Needs Approach : International Labour Organization
    2. Capability Approach : Amartya Sen
    3. Human Capital Approach : Gary Becker and Theodore Schultz
    4. Human Development Approach : International Monetary Fund

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4
    4. 4 only

  76. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana aims at creating what opportunity in urban areas?

    1. Self-employment
    2. Skill training
    3. Livelihood
    4. Wage employment

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 and 4

  77. Arrange the following in chronological order of their constitution by the Government of India to define poverty line:

    1. Alagh Committee
    2. Tendulkar Committee
    3. Lakdawala Committee
    4. Rangarajan Committee

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
    2. 1 → 2 → 4 → 3
    3. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
    4. 4 → 1 → 2 → 3

  78. Assam State Rural Livelihoods Mission Society (ASRLMS) is implementing the DAY-NRLM in the State since

    1. 11th November, 2011
    2. 1th December, 2011
    3. 11th November, 2013
    4. 11th November, 2014

  79. NIPUN Bharat Mission is associated with

    1. the achievement of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN)
    2. women empowerment
    3. skill formation
    4. livelihood generation

  80. The Stand-Up India Scheme specifically targets inclusive entrepreneurship among

    1. Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and women
    2. Government employees and retired personnel
    3. person with disability (PWD) and women
    4. economically weaker section and women

  81. A critical challenge faced by social sector situations like PM-KISAN and PMAY in achieving complete inclusive coverage is

    1. a lack of political will to implement the schemes
    2. difficulties in accurately identifying and targetting eligible beneficiaries due to land record complexities, exclusion errors, and a lack of digital literacy
    3. universal rejection of the scheme by the targetted population
    4. a lack of trained administrative staff in rural areas

  82. Choose the correct choice of scientist and the related discovery.

    1. Charles Robert Darwin : Taxonomy
    2. Edward Osborne Wilson : Natural Selection
    3. Carolus Linnaeus : Biodiversity
    4. Norman Myers : Biodiversity Hot spots

  83. The most critical pathway of industrial pollution badly affecting ecosystem is

    1. direct emission of gases
    2. noise pollution from machinery
    3. secondary deposition into soil and waterbodies
    4. visual landscape alteration

  84. Tropical rainforests in India are mostly distributed in

    1. Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim
    2. Sikkim, West Bengal, Bihar
    3. Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar
    4. Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland

  85. Why is species diversity on the Earth highest in the tropical region?

    1. Very few predators
    2. There is no inter- and intra-specific competition in the tropical region
    3. Stable climatic conditions and receiving high solar energy which contributes to greater diversity and productivity
    4. High variation in environmental conditions exhibiting extreme cold and extreme hot conditions which provide favourable ecosystem for high species diversity

  86. Match the following species (in List-I) with their correct conservation status (in List-II) :

    List-I (Species) List–II (IUCN Conservation Status)
    a. One-horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) 1. Endangered
    b. White-winged duck (Asarcornis scutulata) 2. Least concern
    c. Golden langur (Trachypithecus geei) 3. Critically endangered
    d. Rhesus macaque (Macaca mulatta) 4. Vulnerable

    Select the correct match using the codes given below.

    1. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
    2. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
    3. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
    4. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

  87. The Union Government has designated various waterways in India as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016. The National Waterway 2 (two) connects which stretch of rivers?

    1. Dhubri-Sadiya on River Brahmaputra
    2. Lakhipur-Bhanga on River Barak
    3. Umngot (Dawki) River
    4. Dhansiri River

  88. How many biogeographic zones and provinces are there in India?

    1. 10 biogeographic zones and 26 provinces
    2. 10 biogeographic zones and 22 provinces
    3. 12 biogeographic zones and 24 provinces
    4. 26 biogeographic zones and 10 provinces

  89. Which of the following GI-tagged fruits is incorrectly paired with its State?

    1. Kaji Nemu : Assam
    2. Tamenglong Orange : Manipur
    3. Memong Narang : Nagaland
    4. Khasi Mandarin : Meghalaya

  90. What is Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS)?

    1. Deep understanding of human evolution, anthropocene and infrastructure development
    2. Conserving an ecological balance by avoiding depletion of natural resources India
    3. Body of knowledge and spiritual belief that evolves through adaptive process and is transmitted orally through cultural transmission
    4. Traditional and holistic wisdom, practices and knowledge developed in India

  91. According to the India State of Forest Report, 2023, which North-Eastern State has the highest percentage of forest cover in relation to its total geographical area?

    1. Manipur
    2. Assam
    3. Mizoram
    4. Arunachal Pradesh

  92. Consider the following statements about LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas):

    1. It consists mainly of methane.
    2. Ethyl mercaptan is added to it for leak detection.
    3. It burns with a blue flame.

    According to the India State of Forest Report, 2023, which North-Eastern State has the highest percentage of forest cover in relation to its total geographical area?

    1. Manipur
    2. Assam
    3. Mizoram
    4. Arunachal Pradesh

  93. Which of the following are the applications of Ultrasonic waves?

    1. Cleaning parts located in hard-to-reach places
    2. Detecting cracks and flaws in metal blocks
    3. Echocardiography

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  94. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for using 'mercury' in thermometers?

    1. It does not stick to the glass tube.
    2. It is a good conductor of heat.
    3. It is opaque and shining.
    4. It has a high boiling point.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 4 only

  95. Semiconductors are the foundation of

    1. computers and smartphones, integrated circuits (chips), electric bulbs, torch batteries
    2. computers and smartphones, integrated circuits (chips), transistors, solar bulbs, LEDs
    3. computer and smartphones, gramophone records, water filter candles
    4. integrated circuits (chips), corrugated roof panels, metal detectors

  96. The refractive index of ice is \(1\cdot31\) and that of water is \(1\cdot33\).
    Which of the following statements is in agreement of the above data?

    1. The speed of light is greater in ice than in water.
    2. The speed of light is same in ice and water.
    3. The ratio of speed of light in air and that in water is equal to \(1\cdot33\).
    4. The speed of light in air is \(1\cdot31\) times the speed of light in ice.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 3 and 4 only

  97. Which day is celebrated annually on 23rd October from 6:02 a.m. to 6:02 p.m.?

    1. Mole Day
    2. Pi Day
    3. Tau Day
    4. Bicycle Day

  98. The mass of an object is \(6\text{ kg}\). What would be its weight when measured on the surface of the Moon?

    1. \(9\cdot8\text{ N}\)
    2. \(6\text{ N}\)
    3. \(58\cdot8\text{ N}\)
    4. \(15\cdot8\text{ N}\)

  99. Which day is celebrated annually on 23rd October from 6:02 a.m. to 6:02 p.m.?

    1. transpiration
    2. guttation
    3. diffusion
    4. evaporation

  100. Which of the following statements are best related to LACHIT-1?

    1. It is an AI-based drone interceptor.
    2. It was a satellite launched abroad PSLV-C62 mission.
    3. It was a student-developed experimental satellite built in Assam.
    4. It is a supercomputer installed in IIT, Guwahati.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 and 4

If you prefer reading the original question paper or want to verify the formatting, you can view the official APSC CCE Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper-I PDF below.

Official Question Paper (PDF)

The official APSC Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) Prelims 2025 – General Studies (Paper-I) Question Paper is embedded below for reference. Candidates can use this PDF to verify the original question paper format, instructions, and booklet layout as released by the Assam Public Service Commission (APSC).

Official Provisional Answer Key (PDF)

The official Provisional Answer Key for the APSC Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) Prelims 2025 – General Studies (Paper-I) is available below. It has been published by the Assam Public Service Commission (APSC) and includes the answer keys for all booklet series (A, B, C and D).

Source & Attribution

The Previous Year Question Paper (PYQ) and the Provisional Answer Key published on this page have been reproduced from the official Assam Public Service Commission (APSC) website for educational and reference purposes only. All rights, copyrights, and ownership of these documents remain with the Assam Public Service Commission (APSC).

This website is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or associated with the Assam Public Service Commission (APSC). The content is provided solely to help aspirants prepare for the APSC Combined Competitive Examination (CCE).

Candidates are advised to refer to the official APSC website for the latest notifications, syllabus, examination notices, final answer keys, and other official updates.

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